UPSC Pre GS General Studies exam paper 2 June 2019 (ENGLISH)


UPSC Pre GS General Studies exam paper 2 June 2019 – English IAS CSE exam paper: UPSC Pre GS General Studies exam paper held by UPSC on 2 June 2019 in morning shift with Answer Key available here in English language.

Exam Paper : Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, 2019, Indian Forest Service (Preliminary) Examination, 2019 through CS(P) Examination 2019
Exam Organiser : UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)
Exam Date : 2 June 2019
Exam Shift : First Shift (Morning Shift 9:30 AM to 11:30 AM)
Second Shift Exam PaperClick Here

To view this paper in Hindi language  Click Here

UPSC IAS CSE Pre GS (General Studies) exam paper 2019 (First Shift)

1. With reference to Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIB), consider the following statements :
1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – A

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2. What was the purpose of Intercreditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?
(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit
(b) To support the infrastructure projects of Central and State Governments
(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of ₹50 crore or more
(d) to aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of ₹50 crore or more which are under consortium lending

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Answer – D

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3. The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the
(a) Banks Board Bureau
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Union Ministry of Finance
(d) Management of concerned bank

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Answer – A

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4. Consider the following statements :


1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – B

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5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/ differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?
1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – D

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6. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – C

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7. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits

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Answer – A

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8. In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?
(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998
(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufacturing and Usage) Rules, 1999
(c) The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011
(d) The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

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Answer – C

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9. The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus
(a) transportation cost only hy
(b) interest cost only
(c) procurement incidentals and distribution cost
(d) procurement incidentals and . charges for godowns

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Answer – C

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10. In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?
(a) The proportion of literates in the population
(b) The stock of its buildings, other infrastructure and machines
(c) The size of population in the working age group
(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

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Answer – D

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11. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission

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Answer – B

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12. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements :
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.


2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – A

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13. Consider the following statements :
1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – D

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14. Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?
(a) Advances
(b) Deposits
(c) Investments
(d) Money at call and short notice

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Answer – B

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15. In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?
1. The foreign currency earnings of “India’s IT sector
2. Increasing the government expenditure
3. Remittances from Indians abroad
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – B

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16. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

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Answer – C

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17. Which of the following is issued by. registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?
(a) Certificate of Deposit
(b) Commercial Paper
(c) Promissory Note
(d) Participatory Note

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Answer – D

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18. Consider the following statements :
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only to
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 other
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer – A

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19. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
3. Finance Commission
4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2 and 5

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Answer – A

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20. With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.


2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Answer – A

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